In our life group this week, someone asked how do we reconcile what Moses is recorded as saying in Genesis 2 that it is not good for man to be alone with what the Apostle Paul said in 1 Corinthians 7 about not marrying? First, we have to remember that God is the ultimate author of both so contradiction is never a possibility. Moses vs. Apostle Paul or any other vs. in comparing scripture must always end in a reconciliation of interpretations.
Genesis 2:18 is very clear. Moses records God's declaration for man's need for someone to complete him and then in verses 21 through 25, we are given the miraculous story of the creation of human completeness.
Then, Paul seems to record for us God's declaration that man and woman may not now need completing? Beginning with verse 9 in 1 Corinthians 7, this should never be misunderstood to mean that marriage is a great answer to a lust problem. Marriage is about completing one another so we know God would never direct a person to marriage to solve a problem with sin. He sends us to the cross for that. So what then does verse 9 mean? I believe God is speaking to us through Paul that when two people love one another with a sacred, honorable, worthy of God's blessing kind of love that cannot be denied, then marry. Remember, chapter 7 begins with marriage. Context is our road to understanding. When Paul speaks to the unmarried and widows in verse 8 and 9, I believe he is speaking to those who find themselves in a committed relationship and feel their love is undeniable, not unmarried persons who have a self-control problem in regards to their sexuality. In chapter 6, he just completed railing against sexual immorality, why would he direct such a person to marriage in chapter 7 when in the previous chapter, 6:20, he plainly states the cross is the delivering power for sin.
Picking up with verse 25, Paul continues God's thoughts on whether or not a person should seek marriage, to find completion as God declared through Moses in Genesis 2. Context again is our friend. However, this time, not textual context but cultural context. We must remember that in Paul's day, being married was a forgone conclusion. For a person to consider being single would be like someone in our modern world choosing a MAC over a PC, who would do such a thing! Every period of time has cultural norms and being married had been the norm, well, since Genesis. God wants people to know that they should not feel condemed for choosing to forgo marriage to have more time, energy, and focus on telling the world about Jesus. As we read these verses carefully, we see that Paul is not elevating singleness above marriage but elevating singleness to the same stature as marriage, making them equal, as seen in God's eyes. Notice how he speaks of God having different callings for different people, meaning don't compel others to be like you, compel them to be who God has created them to be. His emphasis is on being single because the cultural norm of marriage needs no help in being defended, again, it has been the cultural norm since the beginning of time.
So why would God elevate incompleteness to the same stature as completeness? Isn't completeness through marriage the message of Genesis 2? Yes, but now that Christ has come, there is another completeness possible. Marriage is not now the only way for a person to be whole. Marriage does not have the power to make us spirutally complete. That is not Paul's intent to suggest something he surely did not believe, or worse, God declare something untrue! We must remember the audience of the 1 Corinthian letter, context is again our friend. The letter was written to believers. Whether married and devoted followers of Jesus or single and devoted followers of Jesus, both are equally complete, in Christ.
I hope this helps bring clarity to what can certainly be a confusing text.
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